Scripsit Javier Fernández-Sanguino Peña <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> > On Fri, Nov 01, 2002 at 10:51:50AM -0800, Thomas Bushnell, BSG wrote:
> > I'm afraid you are quite wrong. A translated work is a product of both > > the original author and the translator, and both have an independent > > copyright. > Show me where the international law says so. That has been pointed out several times: The Berne Convention (Paris text 1971, English version), article 2, section 3: | (3) Translations, adaptations, arrangements of music and other | alterations of a literary or artistic work shall be protected as | original works without prejudice to the copyright in the | original work. Notice the last nine words. http://www.law.cornell.edu/treaties/berne/overview.html -- Henning Makholm "Nemo enim fere saltat sobrius, nisi forte insanit."
