> Does sendmail then re-masquerade the incoming mail for user@domain2
> so the Delivery Agent can get it to the proper mailbox? Or, do you
> have to write rules for the MDA? I'm working on sendmail null
> +1.1.
Not necessary - in my case at least. There's no physical need to have
user@domai
On Tue, 15 Oct 2002 14:46:12 +0800
"Edward Dekkers" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> > There is an article in April 2001 of Linux Journal of a similar
> > scenario. As I know little (null) about sendmail, I will just
> > refer you to the article. It might shed some more light.
> > The named arti
> There is an article in April 2001 of Linux Journal of a similar
> scenario. As I know little (null) about sendmail, I will just refer
> you to the article. It might shed some more light.
> The named article is, "Providing E-mail Services for a Small Office"
> by Stew Benedict.
>
>
On Tue, 15 Oct 2002 10:35:07 +0800
"Edward Dekkers" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> I'm at a loss as I believe this should be possible.
>
> I'm using RedHat 7.2 with all updates.
>
> I'm fetching mail for two domains hosted at an ISP. Let's say the
> domains are domain1 and domain2. They come into
I'm at a loss as I believe this should be possible.
I'm using RedHat 7.2 with all updates.
I'm fetching mail for two domains hosted at an ISP. Let's say the domains
are domain1 and domain2. They come into a single mailbox domain1@isp and
domain2@isp. I'm using multidrop mode to map them to local
