On 23 April 2010 11:16, Shlomi Fish <[email protected]> wrote: >> Not really, it means the same thing here. Honestly the guy in the >> chatlog just seems like he's being paranoid and nitpicky. > > Then how do you explain the article in Hebrew I referred you to?
What makes it authoritative? The term might have some negative connotations, but it still has the same meaning as in english. > Furthermore, > back before I had started reading Larry Wall's "Perl, the First Post-Modern > Language" I recall also having bad associations with the word "post-Modern" > (though they were founded on a feeling rather than actually knowing what post- > modern really meant.). > > I can attest that tzafrir_laptop ( see: http://tzafrir.org.il/ ) was not being > paranoid or nitpicky and is a trustworthy person, despite some of his faults. Still, one ranting article found on the internet and some guy on IRC hardly constitutes a reasonable sample size. This is by far the most ridiculous bikeshedding argument i've ever seen.
