On May 25, 2007, at 12:41 AM, Terry Moore-Read wrote:

> I should clarify that - the way it worked is this :    A device  
> which uses software can be considered an invention and therefore  
> patented.     The software itself is not the device.
>
> So while you can have a codec in software form without infringing  
> the patents - as soon as you build a phone system using that code  
> you have made an infringing device.
>
>>>> "Terry Moore-Read" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> 05/24/07 8:19 AM >>>
> That's basically the way the US Supreme court ruled in the AT&T vs  
> Microsoft case too.
>
>>>> Benny Amorsen <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> 05/24/07 1:32 AM >>>
>>>>>> "SU" == Steve Underwood <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes:
>
> SU> So your argument is that if you take any product using patented
> SU> techniques and introduce a little software into the process, the
> SU> patents magically don't apply in the EU. Somehow I think it would
> SU> be hard to argue that one in court. :-  )
>
> No, the other way around. When the product is purely software, no
> hardware involved, the patents do not apply in the EU.

Huh. Which law school did you say you graduated from?
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