On 05/08/2011 2:19 PM, array chip wrote:
Hi, I read on a paper the below statement, don't know how that was calculated.
Basically, there are 2 continuous variables x1 and x2, as independent variable
for predicting cancer recurrence. So this is a survival analysis. Now the
author try to check the correlation between x1 and x2. He calculated Spearman
rand correlation (~0.22), then he had the following statement:
"Only approximately 5% of the variability in the estimates of recurrence using
either of these scores was explained by the other".
How was that done? with a Cox model including both x1 and x2, can we get that
number (5%)?
I would guess it is r^2 = .22^2 = 0.0484, and I suspect the claim is
unfounded.
Duncan Murdoch
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