Hi, I read on a paper the below statement, don't know how that was calculated. Basically, there are 2 continuous variables x1 and x2, as independent variable for predicting cancer recurrence. So this is a survival analysis. Now the author try to check the correlation between x1 and x2. He calculated Spearman rand correlation (~0.22), then he had the following statement:
"Only approximately 5% of the variability in the estimates of recurrence using either of these scores was explained by the other". How was that done? with a Cox model including both x1 and x2, can we get that number (5%)? Thanks for any hints John ______________________________________________ R-help@r-project.org mailing list https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-help PLEASE do read the posting guide http://www.R-project.org/posting-guide.html and provide commented, minimal, self-contained, reproducible code.
