Malter
Betreff: Re: [R] random effects correlation in lmer
HI Daniel:
I liked your explanation, but in the code snippet you provided, y1 and y2
are the
same. Did you mean to put
y2 <- 10 + rand.slop + time + e or y2 <- 10 + rand.int * rand.slop + tim
+ e?
Dennis
On Tue, Nov 24, 2009
It implies that the random intercept is perfectly collinear with the random
slope, as you suggested. I attach an example.
The data generating process of y1 has a random intercept, but no random
slope. When you fit a model with random intercept and random slope, the
correlation between the two is
I am having an issue with lmer that I wonder if someone could explain.
I am trying to fit a mixed effects model to a set of longitudinal data
over a set of individual subjects:
(fm1 <- lmer(x ~ time + (time|ID),aa))
I quite often find that the correlation between the random effects is 1.0:
Linea
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