At 11:14 PM 10/28/00 -0400, Kevin Diffily wrote:
>I am wondering what issues would be involved with assigning some
>machines on a LAN public ips and some private ip addresses based upon
>their function. Can you have both without causing problems?
Generally not unless you don't care if the two groups are isolated from
each other.
Typically speaking, private IPs will be like: 192.168.x.x with a subnet of
255.255.255.x or 255.255.x.x. Public IPs will not fall within that subnet.
Therefore, if you want some systems to have public IPs and some systems to
have private IPs on the same local network, then you need to provide a
gateway between them (i.e. one system that has two NICs, one with a private
IP and one with a public IP), and all of the private systems would use it
as a gateway to the public ones.
I've never done this, so I'm not sure that the reverse is true. I'm not
completely sure that a system with one NIC with a public IP could access a
system with a private IP via a gateway. It seems logical enough, but there
may be some defined barrier between them in that direction.
Does anybody know about this latter issue?
Lee.
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