I'm thinking I will just use: results <- rbinom(1000, 10, .25) d = sum(results == 0 ) df = (d/1000) df
And do each individually beetle2 wrote: > > Hi Guy's > I was wondering if someone could point me in the right direction. > > dbinom(10,1,0.25) > > I am using dbinom(10,1,0.25) to calculate the probabilty of 10 judges > choosing a certain brand x times. > > I was wondering how I would go about simulating 1000 trials of each x > value ? > > regards > Brendan > > -- View this message in context: http://www.nabble.com/Binomial-simulation-tp23106347p23118747.html Sent from the R help mailing list archive at Nabble.com. ______________________________________________ R-help@r-project.org mailing list https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-help PLEASE do read the posting guide http://www.R-project.org/posting-guide.html and provide commented, minimal, self-contained, reproducible code.
