Am I correct in assuming that the output below essentially translates to
"Males have a mean time that is significantly lower than Females"? Is this
the correct way to interpret the fact that the coefficient is negative?
Assume the variale sex is treated as a factor with Female =0 and Male=1.
survmodel<-survreg(survobj~sex,data=data1, dist="weibull")
survsum<-summary(survmodel)
survsum
Value Std. Error z p
SexMale -0.47830 0.3745 -1.2770 2.02e-01
--
View this message in context:
http://r.789695.n4.nabble.com/Correct-Interpretation-of-survreg-coeffs-tp4608655.html
Sent from the R help mailing list archive at Nabble.com.
______________________________________________
R-help@r-project.org mailing list
https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-help
PLEASE do read the posting guide http://www.R-project.org/posting-guide.html
and provide commented, minimal, self-contained, reproducible code.
