Daniel: Your question should be addressed to R-sig-mixed-models, as it really does not belong on r-help.
-- Bert On Mon, Aug 22, 2011 at 5:11 PM, Daniel Malter <dan...@umd.edu> wrote: > Small bugs in my simulated data (corrected code below). However, that does > not affect my question: > > id<-rep(c(1:100),each=2) > obs<-rep(c(0:1),100) > d<-rep(sample(c(-1,1),100,replace=T),each=2) > base.happy<-rep(rnorm(100),each=2) > happy<-base.happy+1.5*d*obs+rnorm(200) > > data<-data.frame(id,obs,d,happy) > > > Daniel Malter wrote: >> >> Hi all, >> >> I am statistically confused tonight. When the assumptions to a random >> effects estimator are warranted, random effects should be the more >> efficient estimator than the fixed effects estimator because it uses fewer >> degrees of freedom (estimating just the variance parameter of the normal >> rather than using one df for each included fixed effect, I thought). >> However, I don't find this to be the case in this simulated example. >> >> For the sake of the example, assume you measure subjects' happiness before >> exposing them to a happy or sad movie, and then you measure their >> happiness again after watching the movie. Here, "id" marks the subject, >> "obs" marks the pre- and post-treatment observations, "d" is the treatment >> indicator (whether the subject watched the happy or sad movie), >> "base.happy" is the ~N(0,1)-distributed individual effect a(i), happy is >> the measured happiness for each subject pre- and post-treatment, >> respectively, and the error term u(i,t) is also distributed ~N(0,1). >> >> id<-rep(c(1:100),each=2) >> obs<-rep(c(0:1),100) >> d<-rep(sample(c(-1,1),100,replace=T),each=2) >> base.happy<-rep(rnorm(50),each=2) >> happy<-base.happy+1.5*d*obs+rnorm(100) >> >> data<-data.frame(id,obs,d,happy) >> >> # Now run the random and fixed effects models >> >> library(lme4) >> reg.re<-lmer(happy~factor(obs)*factor(d)+(1|id)) >> >> reg.fe1<-lm(happy~factor(id)+factor(obs)*factor(d)) >> summary(reg.fe1) >> >> library(plm) >> reg.fe2<-plm(happy~factor(obs)*factor(d),index=c('id','obs'),model="within",data=data) >> summary(reg.fe2) >> >> >> >> I am confused why FE and RE models are virtually equally efficient in this >> case. Can somebody lift my confusion? >> >> Thanks much, >> Daniel >> > > -- > View this message in context: > http://r.789695.n4.nabble.com/Efficiency-of-random-and-fixed-effects-estimator-tp3761611p3761617.html > Sent from the R help mailing list archive at Nabble.com. > > ______________________________________________ > R-help@r-project.org mailing list > https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-help > PLEASE do read the posting guide http://www.R-project.org/posting-guide.html > and provide commented, minimal, self-contained, reproducible code. > nt.roche.com/index/pdb/pdb-functional-groups/pdb-biostatistics/pdb-ncb-home.htm ______________________________________________ R-help@r-project.org mailing list https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-help PLEASE do read the posting guide http://www.R-project.org/posting-guide.html and provide commented, minimal, self-contained, reproducible code.