Yes, ar and arima are using different estimation methods: arima is mle whereas the default is method-of-moments.

With such a large ar coefficient the end effects will matter, and the mle (done by arima or ar.mle or ar(method="mle")) is the more accurate method since it makes maximal use of the ends of the series.

Using coda (and set.seed(1)):

effectiveSize(as.mcmc(xb))
  var1
8.3611

so you have effectively about 8 independent samples and your estimates (by whatever method) have high variability. Take a much longer series.

On Thu, 7 Jul 2011, Bert Gunter wrote:

WARNING: The following might be **complete baloney** (and my apologies if so).

Erin:
I hope you get a definitive reply on this from a real expert, but if
memory serves, they might be using two different estimation
algorithms. ar() is just doing Yule-Walker recursive calculation as
described in Box-Jenkins, while arima() is using numerical
optimization. You can probably make them closer by changing
convergence criteria for arima(), which would be a good test for my
"explanation."

Cheers,
Bert



On Thu, Jul 7, 2011 at 7:36 AM, Erin Hodgess <erinm.hodg...@gmail.com> wrote:
Dear R People:

Here is some output from AR and ARIMA functions:

xb <- arima.sim(n=120,model=list(ar=0.85))
xb.ar <- ar(xb)
xb.ar

Call:
ar(x = xb)

Coefficients:
    1
0.6642

Order selected 1  sigma^2 estimated as  1.094
xb.arima <- arima(xb,order=c(1,0,0),include.mean=FALSE)
xb.arima

Call:
arima(x = xb, order = c(1, 0, 0), include.mean = FALSE)

Coefficients:
        ar1
     0.6909
s.e.  0.0668

sigma^2 estimated as 1.04:  log likelihood = -172.94,  aic = 349.88


My question:  shouldn't the ar1 and arima coefficients and sigma^2 be
the same, please?  Or at least closer than they are?



Thanks,
Erin


--
Erin Hodgess
Associate Professor
Department of Computer and Mathematical Sciences
University of Houston - Downtown
mailto: erinm.hodg...@gmail.com

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