Hi, Ted. Thanks for your reply. It helped. I have further a bit of questions.
> It may be that lm(log(b) ~ log(a)) is, from a substantive point of view, > a more appropriate model for whetever it is than lm(b ~ a). Or it may > not be. This is a separate question. Again, Spearman's rho is not > definitive. How one determines if one linear model is more appropriate than another ? And : linear model "log(b) ~ log(a)" is okay ? I hesitated to use such thing from the beginning, because it seemed to me like it would have meant a nonlinear model rather than linear.. (Sorry, if the question is stupid, I'm not that good at statistics) Regards, Kate. ______________________________________________ R-help@r-project.org mailing list https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-help PLEASE do read the posting guide http://www.R-project.org/posting-guide.html and provide commented, minimal, self-contained, reproducible code.
