Please re-check your time-series books. The acf at lag 1 is _not_ the
correlation between x and lag(x). For one thing, the variance of x is
computed from the whole series, and not from the series with either the
first or last value removed -- there is also the question of the divisor.
See MASS p.390 for the formulae used.
On Thu, 17 Jan 2008, Shubha Vishwanath Karanth wrote:
> Hi R,
>
>
>
> I have doubt.
>
>
>
>> x= c(4,5,6,3,2,4,5)
>
>> acf(x,plot=F,lag.max=1)
>
>
>
> Autocorrelations of series 'x', by lag
>
>
>
> 0 1
>
> 1.000 0.182
>
>
>
> But if I actually calculate the autocorrelation at lag1 I get,
Not the right formula.
>
>
>> cor(x[-1],x[-length(x)])
>
> [1] 0.1921538
>
>
>
> Even in excel I get 0.1921538 value. So, I want to know what the 'acf'
> function is calculating here....
>
>
>
> Thanks in advance,
>
> Shubha Karanth
>
> This e-mail may contain confidential and/or privileged i...{{dropped:13}}
>
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--
Brian D. Ripley, [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Professor of Applied Statistics, http://www.stats.ox.ac.uk/~ripley/
University of Oxford, Tel: +44 1865 272861 (self)
1 South Parks Road, +44 1865 272866 (PA)
Oxford OX1 3TG, UK Fax: +44 1865 272595
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