On 18/10/2007 7:02 AM, Etienne Toffin wrote: > Hi, > A have small technical question about the calculation of R-squared > using lm(). > In a study case with experimental values, it seems more logical to > force the regression line to pass through origin with lm(y ~ x +0). > However, R-squared values are higher in this case than when I > compute the linear regression with lm(y ~ x). > It seems to be surprising to me: is this result normal ? Is there any > problem in the R-squared value calculated in this case ?
The definition is different in that case. It's proportion of variation about 0, instead of proportion of variation about the mean. Duncan Murdoch ______________________________________________ R-help@r-project.org mailing list https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-help PLEASE do read the posting guide http://www.R-project.org/posting-guide.html and provide commented, minimal, self-contained, reproducible code.
