Martin v. Löwis wrote:
> Michael schrieb:
>
>>A bit more info, but still no clear picture about why functions are
>>mutable but have immutable copy symantics. There are arguments why
>>functions should be immutable, but the decision was to make user-
>>defined functions mutable. My question is still: why the present
>>ummutable copy symantics?
>
>
> The answer is really really simple. The implementation of copy predates
> mutability. When the copy code was written, functions *were* immutable.
> When functions became mutable, the copy code was not changed, and
> nobody noticed or complained.
That's probably an indication that mutable functions don't
get used all that much. Are there any instances of them in the
standard Python libraries?
John Nagle
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