Hi! My ISP recently enabled ipv6 on their network, and started sending router advertisements (offering a /64 prefix) on their pppoe end. So now I have an autoconf'd v6 address on my pppoe0 device (yay!), and I wish to set my in-home devices a v6 address each.
The router that has the pppoe device also has three other interfaces: re1, athn0, athn1. All of these are LAN. What I do now, is that I have rtadvd(8) running on these three devices (re1, athn*). But I have no idea how to generate those autoconfprivacy addresses for these interfaces, and rtadvd needs something there to advertise, so what I also do (and what is probably not a very good idea) is that I just chop the last group of the autoconf'd address of the pppoe0 device, and assign each LAN interface almost the same IPv6 address by changing the last group and incrementing it (with the same /64 prefix of course). Although this works, and my in-home devices get IPv6 addresses from rtadvd, each of them has this nice autoconfprivacy addresses. What I'm wondering about, is if I can assign my LAN interfaces (on my router) autoconfprivacy addresses (for rtadvd(8)) that are derived from the pppoe0 device's autoconf'd inet6 address. Does this make sense? Is this possible? Daniel -- LÉVAI Dániel PGP key ID = 0x83B63A8F Key fingerprint = DBEC C66B A47A DFA2 792D 650C C69B BE4C 83B6 3A8F
