>
>THE HAVES The richest fifth of the world's people consumes 86%
>of all goods and services while the poorest fifth consumes just
>1.3%. Indeed, the richest fifth consumes 45% of all meat and
>fish, 58% of all energy used and 84% of all paper, has 74% of
>all telephone lines and owns 87% of all vehicles.
What might happen under such a radical change in circumstances? It would seem that, on average, citizens of the current rich world, receiving only some 20% of the income to which they were accustomed, would be plunged into devastating poverty. Most would not be able to meet their consumption needs, would not be able to save or invest, and would not be able to pay taxes. Industries and governments would fail, resulting in massive unemployment. It seems probable that the current rich world, now suddenly impoverished, would plummet into an unimaginable chaos. In reality, because of international economic relations, it would probably take much of the world with it, but let us ignore this for the time being.
In the poor world, per capita incomes would rise approximately five-fold. People would experience a bonanza. But what would they do with their new found wealth? Would they spend it on consumption? Would they invest it in productive capital? Would they use it as a means of enlarging their families, resulting in a population boom? We cannot know. There are many possibilities, including a terrible uncertainty.
Of course, the scenario I have posed is absurd. A massive shift of income will not happen. Nevertheless, the scenario does raise the question of what might occur if there were even a relatively modest redistribution of global income in the direction of the have-knots. What might result in terms of global savings, investment, population growth, and other income dependent variables if the ratio between rich and poor countries declined from its present value of 81:19 to something like 75:25 or 70:30? At what value of possible ratios might we enter into scenarios of downward spiral and terrible uncertainty?
I've ignored interdependence between the rich and poor world so far, but let's now look at it. A portion of the income generated in rich countries moves to poor countries in the form of public or private capital investment. It creates income in poor countries. If there were a significant shift in the rich/poor income ratio, say to 75:25, would capital flows of considerable magnitude still be possible? Granted, with an increase in their proportion of global income, poor countries might be able provide more of their own capital, but is it likely that such capital would be sufficient to make the standard of living rise significantly? Could it lift populations out of poverty or even maintain them in relatively decent poverty? Like it or not, as long as there are a considerable number of super-rich in the world, income far in excess of consumption needs can be generated and can be invested where it may be profitable. To a considerable degree, progress in poor countries depends on the ability of rich countries to finance their development and to buy the products that they can then produce. (Please note that I recognize that capital flows from the rich world to the poor are a mixed blessing. We have seen plenty of evidence of that recently!)
But let's bring God back into the picture. What if He (or She) ordained that the rich can get no richer until the poor have caught up, and thus also have a per capita income of approximately $20,000 US per year. Of course, God need not ordain that, since the neo-liberals already have. This is the rosy picture of the world that has sustained us over the past few decades, but which is now coming apart in large chunks. Impose an American style economy and democracy on Southeast Asia and everyone will drive two cars. Do the same for Russia, and everyone will drive at least one. Sorry, but it does not seem to have worked that way.
Ed Weick
