Dennis Roberts wrote:
>
> At 08:51 AM 11/15/01 -0600, jim clark wrote:
>
> >The Ho in the case of means is NOT about the variances, so the
> >analogy breaks down. That is, we are not hypothesizing
> >Ho: sig1^2 = sig2^2, but rather Ho: mu1 = mu2. So there is no
> >direct link between Ho and the SE, unlike the proportions
> >example.
>
> would it be correct then to say ... that the test of differences in
> proportions is REALLY a test about the differences between two population
> variances?
No, because it would reject the null
(with large enough samples) when pi_1 = 1-pi_2,
despite the fact that the variances would be
equal!
-Robert Dawson
=================================================================
Instructions for joining and leaving this list and remarks about
the problem of INAPPROPRIATE MESSAGES are available at
http://jse.stat.ncsu.edu/
=================================================================
