On 04/03/2012 02:38 PM, Lisi wrote:
On Tuesday 03 April 2012 22:04:24 consultores wrote:
When I took the French Bac., the criterion laid down for the aural
English
exam was that marks would be awarded for speaking as would a native
speaker,
explicitly in preference to the "correct" usage.
Here, i only can ask, what side of the dichotomy could be considered as
an undoubted true?
I'm sorry, I don't understand you, or I would answer. You are indicating the
problem. Words used in unusual ways are less comprehensible. (And yes, I am
sure that many others will have understood you. But sadly, I have not.)
Lisi
Lisi
i tried saying that "correct/incorrect", the dichotomy, does not have
any meaning by itself, it needs to be appended by "for", or who/what
is involve.
thanks.
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