alexey-bataev wrote: > For the following: > > ```c > int *p; > #pragma omp target map(p[0]) // (A) > (void)p; > > #pragma omp target map(p) // (B) > (void)p; > > #pragma omp target map(p, p[0]) // (C) > (void)p; > > #pragma omp target map(p[0], p) // (D) > (void)p; > ``` > > For (A), the pointer `p` is predetermined `firstprivate`, so it should be > (and is) captured by-copy. However, for (B), (C), and (D), since `p` is > already listed in a `map` clause, it's not predetermined `firstprivate`, and > hence, should be captured by-reference, like any other mapped variable. > > To ensure the correct handling of (C) and (D), the following changes were > made: > > 1. In SemaOpenMP, we now ensure that `p` is marked to be captured > by-reference in these cases. > 2. We no longer ignore `map(p)` during codegen of `target` constructs, even > if there's another map like `map(p[0])` that would have been mapped using a > PTR_AND_OBJ map. > 3. For cases like (D), we now handle `map(p)` before `map(p[0])`, so the > former gets the TARGET_PARAM flag and sets the kernel argument.
I have one big question - why do we need this? If pointer is mapped explicitly, it becomes an attached pointer, which cannot be modified in target region. How we capture/process it, byref or byval, does not matter, we can do whatever is better. So, why do we need to process it byref? https://github.com/llvm/llvm-project/pull/145454 _______________________________________________ cfe-commits mailing list cfe-commits@lists.llvm.org https://lists.llvm.org/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/cfe-commits
