On Tue, Jun 02, 2020 at 09:44:45PM -0400, Dale R. Worley wrote: > Naively, I expect that
> FOO="$( command2 )" > command1 "$FOO" > > has the same effect as > > command1 "$( command2 )" > > Has anyone pushed the boundaries of this and can tell me whether there > are gotchas? The main case where people care about the difference is when set -e is in effect. Otherwise, no, most people do not care. If they cared, they would be checking the exit status of command2 themselves, rather than simply letting the shell proceed. (And set -e should never be in effect. But people don't listen when we tell them that, so that situation persists.)
