> need to be recompiled for a given node. If all of
the nodes can use
> one single compile of all of the codes needed, the
cluster is not
> heterogenous. I guess this would mean that running
a 32-bit program
> (I want karma for minding my usage of code vs.
program here! :) ) on a
> mixture of 32-bit and 64-bit machines would be
homogenous, but if on
> the same cluster, the 32-bit machines ran a 32-bit
program and the
> 64-bit machines ran a 64-bit program then that
cluster might be
I typically maintain a sub-environment, if one will,
where I can run my
32 bit applications within a 64 bit operating system.
All my nodes
could do the same simply by chrooting in first prior
to execution, and
thus share exactly the same operating system capable
of both 64 and 32
bit operation. Does one half of them running 32 bit
applications and
one half of them running 64 bit applications qualify
them as
heterogeneous even though their hardware and software
are identical? I
wouldn't say so. I typically associate heterogeneous
with hardware,
since, unlike software, it lacks the needed mutability
to assimilate
into a common architecture.
Just my input, obviously I've not been at this long
and would enjoy any
suggestions otherwise.
Ellis
____________________________________________________________________________________
You rock. That's why Blockbuster's offering you one month of Blockbuster Total
Access, No Cost.
http://tc.deals.yahoo.com/tc/blockbuster/text5.com
_______________________________________________
Beowulf mailing list, Beowulf@beowulf.org
To change your subscription (digest mode or unsubscribe) visit
http://www.beowulf.org/mailman/listinfo/beowulf
